Example 1
If a force is given by
| F(x, y) = (0, x), |
Solution: First, can you see what the sign of the integral
should be? Notice that curve and the vector field are mostly going in
the same direction. The tangent vector to the curve and the vector
field always make an angle less that
/2. So, their dot product
must be positive everywhere along the curve, which means the integral
must be positive.
The first step to computing the integral is to parametrize the curve C. We'll parametrize it by
| c(t) = (cos t, sin t), 0 |
| c'(t) = (- sin t, cos t). |
| = |
||
| = |
||
| = |
||
| = |
||
| = |
||
| = |
It's a good things the answer is positive, so it agrees with what we read off the picture.
Example 1'
The integral
F . ds does not
depend on parameterization, as long as we parametrize C to go in the
counter-clockwise direction. To see this, calculate the integral
using the parametrization
| p(t) = ( |
Solution: Since
p'(t) = , 1 |
| = |
||
= , 1 |
||
= , 1 |
||
| = |
| = |
||
| = |
||
| = |
Example 2
The line integral does, in general depend on the path. The path for Example 1 started at (1,0) and ended at (0,1). What is the integral
Solution: We can find this answer without doing any computations.
The first part of the path is moving left along the x-axis. In that case, the path is orthogonal to the vector field, which points up. Therefore, the dot product between the vector field and the tangent vector is always zero. The force does no work on the particle during this first segment.
The second part of the path is moving straight up along the y-axis. Along the y-axis, x = 0, so that F(x, y) = (0, x) = (0, 0). The vector field is zero, and the integral of zero is zero. We can conclude that