Line integral examples

Example 1

If a force is given by

F(x,y) = (0,x),

compute the work done by the force field on a particle that moves along the curve C that is the counter-clockwise quarter unit circle in the first quadrant. In the below picture, the curve C is plotted by the long green curved arrow. The vector field F is represented by the vertical black arrows.

PIC

Solution: First, can you see what the sign of the integral should be? Notice that curve and the vector field are mostly going in the same direction. The tangent vector to the curve and the vector field always make an angle less that π2. So, their dot product must be positive everywhere along the curve, which means the integral must be positive.

The first step to computing the integral is to parametrize the curve C. We’ll parametrize it by

c(t) = (cos t, sin t),0 t π 2.

so that the derivative is

c'(t) = ( sin t, cos t).

The work is the line integral

CF ds =0π2F(c(t)) c'(t)dt =0π2F(cos t, sin t) ( sin t, cos t)dt =0π2(0, cos t) ( sin t, cos t)dt =0π2 cos 2tdt =0π21 2(1 + cos 2t)dt = 1 2 t + sin 2t 2 0π2 = 1 2 π 2 0 = π 4.

It’s a good thing the answer is positive, so it agrees with what we read off the picture.

Example 1’

The integral CF ds does not depend on parameterization, as long as we parametrize C to go in the counter-clockwise direction. To see this, calculate the integral using the parametrization

p(t) = (1 t2,t),0 t 1.

Solution: Since

p'(t) = t 1 t2, 1 ,

the work is

CF ds =01F(p(t)) p'(t)dt =01F(1 t2,t) t 1 t2, 1 dt =01(0,1 t2) t 1 t2, 1 dt =011 t2dt.

To complete this integral, use the u-substitution t = sin u, so that dt = cos udu. Since t goes from 0 to 1, u must go from 0 to π2. Thus, the integral becomes

CF ds =0π21 sin 2 u cos udu =0π2cos 2 u cos udu =0π2 cos 2udu.

This is exactly the same integral we had for Example 1 (if replace t with u in the third line from the bottom of Example 1). So we immediately see that the work is, again, π4.

Example 2

The line integral does, in general depend on the path. The path for Example 1 started at (1,0) and ended at (0,1). What is the integral

CF ds

if C is the following different path (shown in blue) from (1,0) to (0,1)?

PIC

Solution: We can find this answer without doing any computations.

The first part of the path is moving left along the x-axis. In that case, the path is orthogonal to the vector field, which points up. Therefore, the dot product between the vector field and the tangent vector is always zero. The force does no work on the particle during this first segment.

The second part of the path is moving straight up along the y-axis. Along the y-axis, x = 0, so that F(x,y) = (0,x) = (0, 0). The vector field is zero, and the integral of zero is zero. We can conclude that

CF ds = 0.